3 Jun 2019

It is not claiming of questions but a sharing of joy!!!

Prelims got over yesterday. And as expected, it being Civil Services Examination the paper turned out to be unconventional. Hang on! Do not declare it unpredictable. Opinions keep barging in from students of different places that the paper was unpredictable. Definitely, the paper was tough, unconventional but not unpredictable! This word has become a norm these days. But this norm is an unhealthy one is what Manifest team believes. Are things really unpredictable? If such is the case what should an aspirant do?

We feel that UPSC is not unpredictable but has been made so over the years years. And for this the wrong methods followed by institutes are the real culprit. Excessive emphasis on compilations, encouraging neglect of Newspaper readings and dissuading classroom teaching are for blame. UPSC has been targeting precisely such shortcuts. And this has become a norm since 2016 which  shall continue in coming years. UPSC shall discourage all kinds of shortcuts. It is futile to compartmentalize a paper as Static or Current. It is a basis which will surely lead to a  flawed analysis. UPSC will take any measure (may be static, current or a mix) to discourage such shortcuts.

We the Manifest team recognized this attitude of UPSC years ago and this was one of the causes for academic differences at  the earlier institute. The  academic freedom in our institute helped us explore intellectually and help our students better. It has been just 8 months that we first started MANIFEST IAS. From the day we started off, we strove nights and days both in our classes and test series in the hope of achieving something beautiful and being helpful to our students. And the result is here today! Hard work and more specifically team work always pays. We were able to predict  60+ questions (22 questions straight from Test Series [16 tests only] which started in January, 2019)  in Prelims. Prediction is a wrong word as Manifest does not believe in it, since it encourages blind obedience. We believe in the holistic coverage of the syllabus of UPSC which brings UPSC way back to the preparation from being an institute’s way. It is the right approach towards SYLLABUS, synergy among different subjects, integration between ONLINE and OFFLINE MATERIAL and the maturity in decoding the UPSC kind of questions through our TEST SERIES which has paid off today. It is not hubris that we are sharing with you but a joy a teacher gets when his/her teaching helps students and nudge them to do well in the exam. It is a happiness which a mentor gets when he/she sees a smile on the face of students. It is not the end of the war though but just a beginning. We the entire team is ready for the next challenge. We are ready to help the aspirants for Mains exam. We welcome everyone for that.

NOTE: The images attached as proof are for the reference of Manifest students. 


Q1.Consider the following statements:

1.Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2.Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3.Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)2 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class slide


Q2.What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a)Recently discovered uranium deposits.

(b)Tropical rain forests.

(c)Underground cave systems.

(d)Water reservoirs


Q3.In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1.The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2.H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3.Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4.H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4


Q4.Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a)Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b)Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(c)The Earth’s surface would have low temperature n cloudy nights.

(d)Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.


Q5.Consider the following statements:

1.The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2.The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither

Manifestation: Class notes


Q6.Consider the following statements:

1.The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2.The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3.The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4.If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b)3 only

(c)3 and 4 only

(d)1, 3 and 4

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q7.The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a)Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c)Indira Gandhi

(d)Morarji Desai

Manifestation: Test series code-01 Set-A Question-31


Q8.Consider the following statements:

1.Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2.Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3.Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Test series code-10 Set-A Question-26


Q9.Consider the following statements:

1.The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2.The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3.The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)3 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Scholarship test Set-A Question-46

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q10.Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a)Third Schedule

(b)Fifth Schedule

(c)Ninth Schedule

(d)Twelfth Schedule

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q11.Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance Himalayan nettle(Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a)anti-malarial drug

(b)biodiesel

(c)pulp of paper industry

(d)textile fibre


Q12.For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1.Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location.

2.Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location.

3.Land surface temperature of a specific location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Q13.Consider the following States:

1.Chhattisgarh

2.Madhya Pradesh

3.Maharashtra

4.Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a)2-3-1-4

(b)2-3-4-1

(c)3-2-4-1

(d)3-2-1-4


Q14.Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1.Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2.Large deposits of ’methane hydrate’  are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3.Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Test series code-13 Set-A Question-24

Test series synopsis:Gas hydrates are formed when a gas such as methane gets trapped in well-defined cages of water molecules forming crystalline solids. In terrestrial conditions, gas hydrates are formed naturally under the sea bed and glaciers under high pressure, low temperature conditions.

Source of test series question: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iit-madras-team-produces-gas-hydrates-under-space-conditions/article25934300.ece


Q15.Consider the following:

1.Carbon monoxide

2.Methane

3.Ozone

4.Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2, 3 and 4 only

(c)1 and 4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 (Provisional)


Q16.Consider the following pairs:

Sea : Bordering country

1.Adriatic sea :Albania

2.Black sea :Croatia

3.Caspian sea :Kazakhstan

4.Mediterranean sea :Morocco

5.Red sea :Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1, 2 and 4 only

(b)1, 3 and 4 only

(c)2 and 5 only

(d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Q17.Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a)China

(b)India

(c)Myanmar

(d)Vietnam


Q18.Consider the following pairs:

Glacier : River

1.Bandarpunch : Yamuna

2.Bara Shigri : Chenab

3.Milam : Mandakini

4.Siachen : Nubra

5.Zemu : Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1, 2 and 4

(b)1, 3 and 4

(c)2 and 5

(d)3 and 5

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q19.In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl, parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a)Pesticides in agriculture

(b)Preservatives in processed foods

(c)Fruit -ripening agents

(d)Moisturising agents in cosmetics

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q20.Consider the following statements:

1.Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

2.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3.The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q21.Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

(a)Chalukya

(b)Chandela

(c)Rashtrakuta

(d)Vijayanagara

Manifestation: Class Slide


Q22.Consider the following statements:

1.In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.

2.The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3.The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 2 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q23.Consider the following statements:

1.Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2.Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2


Q24.With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1.Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.

2.In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3.Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)1 and 3 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Q25.With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person : Position held

1.Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru :President, All India Liberal Federation

2.K.C.Neogy :Member, The Constituent Assembly

2.P.C.Joshi :General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 2 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q26.With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a)Tansen was title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

(b)Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

(c)Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

(d)Tansen invented many Ragas.

Claim: Class slide + Test series code-13 Set-A Question-30 + Test series code-03 Set-A Question-02

Test series code-13 Set-A Question-30

Test series code-03 Set-A Question-02

 

 


Q27.Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a)Humayun

(b)Akbar

(c)Jahangir

(d)Shah Jahan

Manifestation: Class Slide

 


Q28.Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a)Manas National Park

(b)Namdapha National Park

(c)Neora Valley National Park

(d)Valley of Flowers National Park


Q29.Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a)Department of Science and Technology

(b)Ministry of Labour and Employment

(c)NITI Aayog

(d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q30.On 21st June, the Sun

(a)Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b)Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c)Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d)Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn


Q31.With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1.Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2.Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2


Q32.With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings

(b)The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all landless

(c)It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation

(d)Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits


Q33.The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

(a)International Monetary Fund

(b)United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(c)World Economic Forum

(d)World Bank


Q34.Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1.It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2.It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3.The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Handout


Q35With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1.It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2.The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q36.Consider the following pairs:

Movement/                  Leader

Organization

1.All India Anti- : Mahatma Gandhi

 Untouchability

 League

2.All India Kisan : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

 Sabha

3.Self-Respect : E.V.Ramaswam Naicker

Movement

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 2 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q37.Which of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a)Chanhudaro

(b)Kot Diji

(c)Sohgaura

(d)Desalpur


Q38.In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a)Kanganahalli

(b)Sanchi

(c)Shahbazgarhi

(d)Sohgaura


Q39.Consider the following:

1.Deification of the Buddha.

2.Treading the path of Bodhisattvas.

3.Image worship and rituals.

Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 2 only

(c)2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q40.With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)It was considered a source of income for the state, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b)It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(c)The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

(d)The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.


Q41.Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

(a)Tobacco, Cocoa and Rubber

(b)Tobacco, Cotton and Rubber

(c)Cotton, Coffe a Sugarcane

(d)Rubberr, Coffee and Wheat

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q42.Consider the following statements:

1.Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.

2.Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3.One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Q43.Consider the following pairs:

Famous place    : River

1.Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga

2.Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery

3.Hampi : Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes

Manifestation: Manifest 11 Current affairs

Q44.In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

(a)Poverty rates vary from State to State

(b)Price levels vary from State to State

(c)Gross State Product varies from State to State

(d)Quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Manifestation:Test series code-04 Set-A Question-22

Manifestation: Class Notes

 


Q45.In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus  cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

(a)Creating the artificial rains in some regions.

(b)Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.

(c)Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth.

(d)Reducing the global warming.

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q46.In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

(a)Extraction of rare earth elements

(b)Natural gas extraction technologies

(c)Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

(d)Waste-to-energy technologies

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q47.Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a)Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

(b)Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and  Silent Valley National Park.

(c)Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park.

(d)Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.


Q48.Consider the following statements:

1.Some species of the turtles are herbivores.

2.Some species of fish are herbivores.

3.Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.

4.Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2, 3 and 4 only

(c)2 and 4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4


Q49.Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in

1.Blue-finned Mahseer :Cauvery River

2.Irrawaddy Dolphin :Chambal River

3.Rusty-spotted Cat :Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Q.50 Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?

(a)They are considered harmful to marine ecosystem.

(b)They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(c)They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

(d)They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Manifestation: Test series code-13 Set-A Question-21 + Manifest 11 Current affairs

Test series synopsis:

Ans: (c)

Plastic is the most prevalent type of marine debris found in our ocean and Great Lakes. Plastic debris can come in all shapes and sizes, but those that are less than five millimetres in length (Defined by National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)) are called “micro plastics.”

Microplastics come from a variety of sources, including from larger plastic debris that degrades into smaller and smaller pieces. In addition, microbeads, a type of microplastic, are very tiny pieces of manufactured polyethylene plastic that are added as exfoliants to health and beauty products, such as some cleansers and toothpastes.


Q51. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements;

1.In the Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2.In the Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.

3.AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smartphone or PC.

4.VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 2

(b)3  and 4

(c)1, 2 and 3

(d)4 only

Manifestation: Class slide + Test series code-03 Set-A Question-93 + Test series code-15 Set-A Question-67 + Class Handout

Test series code-03 Set-A Question-93

Test series code-15 Set-A Question-67

Test series synopsis:

Ans: (d)

Augmented Reality (AR) makes the real-life environment around us into a digital interface by putting virtual objects in real-time. Augmented Reality uses the existing environment and overlays new information on the top of it unlike virtual reality, which creates a totally artificial environment. Augmented Reality can be seen through a variety of experiences. Recent developments have made this technology accessible using a smartphone which led to development of wide variety of augmented reality apps.

Manifestation: Class Handout

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q52.The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a)Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b)An early human species

(c)A cave system found in North-East India

(d)A geographical period in the history of Indian subcontinent


Q54.With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a)Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

(b)Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.

(c)A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

(d)Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes


Q54 Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

1.An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2.Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet

3.An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q55.In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/ are accomplished by wearable devices?

1.Location identification of a person

2.Sleep monitoring of a person

3.Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q56.RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years why?

1.It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2.It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.

3.It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4.It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1, 2 and 4

(b)2 and 3

(c)1 and 3

(d)1 and 4 only


Q57.Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billion of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation?

(a)Higgs boson particles were detected

(b)Gravitational waves were detected

(c)Possibility of intergalactic space travel through wormhole was confirmed

(d)It enabled the scientists to understand the singularity

Manifestation: Scholarship test Set-A Question-79 + Test series code-17 Set-A Question-22 + Class Handout + Manifest 11 Current affairs

Scholarship test Set-A Question-79

Test series code-17 Set-A Question-22

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Test series synopsis:

Ans. (a)

On 11 February 2016, the LIGO collaboration announced the first direct detection of gravitational waves, which also represented the first observation of a black hole merger. As of December 2018, eleven gravitational wave events have been observed that originated from ten merging black holes (along with one binary neutron star merger).

A black hole is a region of space-time exhibiting gravitational acceleration so strong that nothing—no particles or even electromagnetic radiation such as light—can escape from it. The theory of general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform space-time to form a black hole.

Manifestation: Class Handout

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q58.Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1.Genetic predisposition of some people

2.Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3.Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4.Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1, 3 and 4

(d)2, 3 and 4

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q59.What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

(a)A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

(b)A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

(c)A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

(d)A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Manifestation: Test series code-03 Set-A Question-25

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q60.Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a)Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV

(b)Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine

(c)Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

(d)Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.


Q61.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1.No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2.An amendment to the constitution of India cannot be called into question  by Supreme Court of India

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q62.Consider the following statements:

1.Purchasing Power Parity(PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries

2.In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Test series code-04 Set-A Question-66 + Test series code-15 Set-A Question-57

Test series code-04 Set-A Question-66

Test series code-15 Set-A Question-57

Synopsis: Ans: (a)

The law of one price is the economic theory that states the price of an identical security, commodity or asset traded anywhere should have the same price regardless of location when currency exchange rates are taken into consideration, if it is traded in a free market with no trade restrictions.

Manifestation: Class Notes

 


Q63.With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1.Area under rice cultivation is the highest

2.Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds

3.Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

4.Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2, 3 and 4 only

(c)2 and 4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4


Q64.Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a)Spices

(b)Fresh fruits

(c)Pulses

(d)Vegetable oils

Manifestation: Test series code-09 Set-A Question-33


Q65.In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a)Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b)Absence of restraint

(c)Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(b)Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q66.Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

(a)Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports

(b)Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala  Bonds

(c)Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

(d)Following an expansionary monetary policy

Manifestation: Test series code-08 Set-A Question-25

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q67.Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system provides that

1.They shall ensure that entire data relating to payments systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India

2.They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises

3.They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the given statements above is / are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 2 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q68.Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

(a)Australia

(b)Canada

(c)The European Union

(d)The United States of America

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q69.Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

(a)Japan

(b)Russia

(c)The United Kingdom

(d)The United States of America


Q70.The money multiplier in an economy increases with which of the following?

(a)Increase in the cash reserve ratio

(b)Increase in the banking habit of the population

(c)Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

(d)Increase in the population of the country

Manifestation: Test series code-12 Set-A Question-18


Q71.The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

(a)Integrated Rural Development Programme

(b)Lead Bank Scheme

(c)Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(d)National Skill Development Mission

Manifestation: Scholarship test Set-A Question-56


Q72.With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1.Sand is the minor mineral according to the prevailing law in the country

2.State governments have the powers to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3.State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the given statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q73.Consider the following statements:

1.Most of India’s external debt is owed by government entities

2.All of India’s external debt is denominated in US Dollars

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Test series code-12 Set-A Question-06


Q74.Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a)Advances

(b)Deposits

(c)Investments

(d)Money at call and short notice


Q75In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1.The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector

2.Increasing the government expenditure

3.Remittances from Indian abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)1 and 3 only

(c)2 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q76.Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a)First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b)Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c)Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d)National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)


Q77.Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian Stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a)Certificate of Deposit

(b)Commercial Paper

(c)Promissory Note

(d)Participatory Note

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q78Consider the following statements:

1.As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and state levels

2.People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q79.In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc?

1.Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2.Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3.Finance Commission

4.Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5.NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2

(b)1, 3 and 4

(c)3, 4 and 5

(d)2 and 5


Q80.With reference to India’s Five Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.From the Second Five Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries

2.The Fourth Five Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power

3.In the Fifth Five year plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the plan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Test series code-04 Set-A Question-52  + Test series code-04 Set-A Question-93

Test series code-04 Set-A Question-52

Test series code-04 Set-A Question-93

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q81.Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups(PVTGs) in India:

1.PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory

2.A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for detecting PVTGs status.

3.There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4.Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1, 2 and 3

(b)2, 3 and 4

(c)1, 2 and 4

(d)1, 3 and 4


Q82.With the reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a)The decision taken by the Election  Commision of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law

(b)The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament

(c)In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet

(d)State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union legislature.


Q83.With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1.The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2.When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2 (Provisional)

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q84.Consider the following statements:

1.The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by  Land, Sea and Air’.

2.The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.

3.A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime(UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4.The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime(UNODC) is mandated by its to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 3

(b)2, 3 and 4 only

(c)2 and 4 only

(d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q85.Consider the following statements:

1.As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2.As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3.The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)1 and 1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Test series code-09 Set-A Question-36 + Manifest 11 Current Affairs


Q86.Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a)Article 19

(b)Article 21

(c)Article 25

(d)Article 29

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q87.Consider the following statements:

1.According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2.In India, there is no INtellectual Property Appellate Board.

3.Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes

 


Q88.Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1.State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2.Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q89.As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories

(b)The rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial township only

(c)The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

(d)It is mandatory on the part of waste generator  that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.


Q90.Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1.If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers

2.No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2


Q91.With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1.AIIB has more than 80 member nations

2.India is the largest shareholder in AIIB

3.AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q92.What was the purpose of Intercreditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a)To lessen the government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(b)To support the infrastructure projects of central and State Governments

(c)To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs.50 crore or more

(d)To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs.50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Manifestation: Test series code-12 Set-A Question-12

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q93.The Chairmen of Public Sector banks are selected by

(a)Banks Board Bureau

(b)Reserve Bank of India

(c)Union Ministry of Finance

(d)Management of concerned bank


Q94.Consider the following statements:

1.Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India

2.One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas

3.Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3


Q95.With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE(Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE(Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1.LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G

2.LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 only

(b)2 only

(c)Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q96.Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1.Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2.Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.

3.Women with two children get reduced entitlements

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)1 and 2 only

(b)2 only

(c)3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Manifestation: Test series code-01 Set-A Question-77 + Test series code-19 Set-A Question-32 (Set C – Q82) + Class Handout

Test series code-01 Set-A Question-77

Test series code-19 Set-A Question-32 (Set C – Q82)

Test series synopsis: The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees from the existing 12 weeks to 26 weeks. Under the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, this benefit could be availed by women for a period extending up to a maximum of 8 weeks before the expected delivery date and the remaining time can be availed post childbirth. For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be 12 weeks (i.e., 6 weeks pre and 6 weeks post expected date of delivery).

Maternity leave for adoptive and commissioning mothers:
The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act extends certain benefits to adoptive mothers as well and provides that every woman who adopts a child shall be entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave, from the date of adoption.

Work from Home option:
The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has also introduced an enabling provision relating to “work from home” for women, which may be exercised after the expiry of the 26 weeks’ leave period. Depending upon the nature of work, women employees may be able to avail this benefit on terms that are mutually agreed with the employer.

Crèche facility:
The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing 50 or more employees. Women employees would be permitted to visit the crèche 4 times during the day.

Manifestation: Class handout

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q97.Which one of the following is not a sub index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?

(a)Maintenance of law and order

(b)Paying Taxes

(c)Registering Property

(d)Dealing with construction permits

Manifestation: Class Notes+ Manifest 11 Current affairs


Q98.In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?’

(a)The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules,1998

(b)The Recycled Plastic (Management and Usage) Rules,1999

(c)The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules,2011

(d)The Food Safety and Standards Regulations.2011

Manifestation: Scholarship test Set-A Question-97

Manifestation: Class Notes


Q99.The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

(a)Transportation cost only

(b)Interest cost only

(c)Procurement incidentals and distribution costs

(d)Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Manifestation: Test series code-09 Set-A Question-06


Q100.In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital

(a)The proportion of literates in the population

(b)The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

(c)The size of population in the working age group

(d)The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society